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More on quantum mechanics of the past

The following comments have been received from Jonathan Oppenheim. I have also added a comment of my own.

Dieter Zeh wrote:

> In particular, I do not understand what postselection (required for Bill
> Unruh's symmetry arguments) means if there is no ensemble to select from.

I think Bill's argument is just that quantum mechanics itself says nothing about a time direction, so in and of itself, it can't yield an argument which says the past is different from the future.

Take for example an attempt to measure the momentum of a particle at a particular place (the classic example being a very heavy atom with a well defined energy spacing E). So if a photon excites the atom, we can use E=pc to claim that we have measured the momentum of the photon at a well defined location. Of course you have no idea when the atom got excited or de-excited.

But the physical process of decays and excitations are time-symmetric. Take an excited atom, evolve the wave function of the photon and atom (and any decohering medium) well into the future. Then prepare this wavefunction. Sure it is difficult but this is besides the point.

It is not that quantum mechanics is time asymmetric, it is that Dyson's statements are time-asymmetric. He compares the statement "The atom *decayed* at 9 a.m. yesterday" to "The atom has a *probability of decaying* at 9 a.m. tomorrow." True, we can't find a wave function for an atom and photon which decayed at 9 a.m. yesterday, but nor can we find one for an atom and photon which will get excited at 9 am tomorrow. And while we can find a wave function for a system which has a probability of absorption or decay at 9 am tomorrow, we can also find a wave function from the system which had a probability of decaying at 9 am yesterday (but may also have decayed at some other time).

I.e., we ought to compare definite past results with results which will occur with certainty in the future (or past amplitudes with future amplitudes).

Or take the following rather silly case (which maybe is a bit besides the point). I have a very small particle detector which sits at a particular location (x=0 say). I prepare an ensemble with a well defined p (but with enough dispersion so that it is located somewhere out at minus infinity and traveling towards the origin). Then on half the ensemble I measure p, and on half the ensemble I measure x using this particle detector. The dispersion relation is then dxdp as small as I want. Can I claim that I have prepared a state which in the future will violate the laws of quantum mechanics? Okay, that example is very silly, but I think it makes the point.

The argument applies to quantum cosmology as well. In deterministic classical mechanics, one can give an initial condition which then implies a (redundant) final condition (which people sometimes think of as having a higher entropy).

In quantum mechanics, an initial condition (preparation), does not imply a deterministic final condition (final result of measurement). Still for some reason, people think of some initial wave function (even for the universe where there is no measurer). Why then not consider a final wave function? How can you justify an initial wave function of the universe over a final wave function of the universe? Yakir Aharonov has some rather bizarre models with final conditions, and where entropy is seen to increase in both cases.

Final remark by Paul Davies: Gell-Mann and Hartle have formulated quantum cosmology in an explicitly time-symmetric way, with matched initial and final boundary conditions on the wave function. It was published in Physical Origins of Time Asymmetry (ed. J.J. Halliwell et al, Cambridge University Press, 1994) p 311. Together with Jason Twamley I published what I believe are observational objections to this model: 'Time-symmetric cosmology and the opacity of the future light cone' Class. Quantum Grav. 10 (1993), 931.

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Published   2002.02.16
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